Full-Length Practice Exam 2

Nov 2nd, 2020

Welcome to your Full-Length Practice Exam 2

1. Which of these drugs can, at high doses, cause tinnitus?
2. Phenazopyridine is known to discolor urine which of these?
3. Which of these drugs can be used to treat intractable hiccups?
4. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are used in the treatment of which of these conditions?
5. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
6. What is the active ingredient of the medicine, Lasix?
7. Which of these drug classes is associated with a persistent, dry cough?
8. Which of these drug classes works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
9. What is the active ingredient of the medicine, Viagra?
10. Which of these drugs is used to promote fetal lung maturation in women who are at risk of delivering prematurely?
11. Which of the following drugs must be administered once weekly?
12. Metronidazole is the active ingredient of which of these medicines?
13. Which of the following drugs is used for smoking cessation?
14. Which of these drug classes work by inhibiting the COX enzyme?
15. Opioid drugs induce their analgesic effects by targeting which opioid receptor?
16. Olanzapine is the active ingredient of which of these medicines?
17. Which of the following drugs is a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
18. Which of the following drugs is not an anti-convulsant medicine?
19. Omeprazole, pantoprazole, and lansoprazole are all examples of which drug class?
20. Which drug is known to cause the syndrome of side effects called cinchonism?
21. Which of the following terms is used to describe the study of “what a drug does to the body”?
22. Which of these drugs is used to treat breast cancer?
23. Which of the following foods should be avoided in patients taking statins?
24. What is an antitussive drug used to treat?
25. Which of the following drugs is classified as an antipyretic medicine?
26. What is an analgesic drug used to treat?
27. Which of these terms is used to describe an inert substance or treatment that has no therapeutic value?
28. What is the active ingredient of the medicine, Namenda?
29. Ibuprofen is the active ingredient of which of these medicines?
30. Which of these medicines should be taken on an empty stomach, early in the morning, with a full glass of water?
31. What is the active ingredient of the medicine Cialis?
32. One of the ways to identify a fake prescription is to spot an incorrect or invalid DEA number. Which of these letters, when used as the first digit of the number, indicate that the DEA is invalid?
33. Prescriptions for _______________ drugs must be accompanied by the DEA number of the prescriber.
34. A “shake well” auxiliary label is appropriate when dispensing drugs with which kind of dosage form?
35. Which of the following Roman numerals is an invalid number?
36. If a prescription is a controlled drug and found within Schedules III through V, what is the maximum number of permitted refills?
37. A pharmacy technician notes that the names on the prescriptions do not match. One of the letters is different. How should the technician react?
38. Expired drugs pose a hazard to the patient. Fanconi syndrome may result if a patient takes which of the following expired drugs?
39. How many tablets should be dispensed to a patient who receives the following prescription: iii caps ud q12h x 7d
40. What is the maximum number of refills for non-controlled drugs?
41. Which of the following statements is false regarding controlled drug prescription orders?
42. Which of the following prescription terms refers to instructions given to the pharmacist, for example, specifying whether a generic drug may be substituted for a branded equivalent?
43. Which of the following pharmacy terms refers to “oral administration”?
44. A pharmacy technician has prepared an 8 milliliter vial. How many 0.4mL doses can be taken from this vial and administered to the patient?
45. What is the percentage strength of a 120-gram ointment that contains 8000mg of active ingredient?
46. Convert 0.4% to a ratio strength.
47. How many milligrams can be found in 5 grains?
48. Nexium retails in your local pharmacy for $8.90 per pack. Wholesale, the cost of Nexium is $5.49. The dispensing cost of selling Nexium is $1.10. What is the net profit for the pharmacy for each sale of one pack of Nexium?
49. How many milliliters of sodium chloride should be dispensed if a TPN order is made for 80 milliequivalents of NaCl and each stock vial contains 4mEq/mL?
50. A surgeon prescribes 1.2-liters of intravenous fluid to be administered to a patient over a 6-hour period. What is the flow rate administered to the patient in mL/min?
51. How many grams of dextrose can be found in 500mL of D50W?
52. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for carboplatin 50mg/m2 per dose. If the BSA of the patient is 1.4m2, how many milligrams of carboplatin are needed to satisfy the prescription?
53. How many milliliters are found in 14 fluid ounces?
54. Nothing should pass __________ a sterile object when working in a horizontal laminar flow hood.
55. A pharmacy technician is compounding with an IV bag in a laminar flow hood. In which direction should the IV injection port be positioned?
56. Which of the following is an example of a sterile product?
57. In the absence of other data, how long (according to USP 795) is the beyond-use date of solids and non-aqueous liquids prepared from commercially available dosage forms?
58. For how long must employees wash their hands and forearms before preparing to compound sterile products?
59. Which of the following alcohols is referred to as Alcohol USP?
60. Which of the following dosage forms may be prepared using the “punch” method?
61. In which of the following zones are sterile products prepared?
62. What term is used to describe the phenomenon in which two liquids mix equally with one another, without phase separation?
63. Which of the following is NOT true when it comes to root cause analysis?
64. Which of the following laws is used to encourage the voluntary reporting of adverse events to enhance patient safety?
65. Which of these medicines has a high rate of medication errors?
66. “Medication therapy management” is an outcome derived from which of the following sources?
67. What is the definition of “polypharmacy”?
68. Which of the following is NOT a safe and effective practice when it comes to crash cart medicines?
69. Which of the following pharmacy strategies can be used to mitigate the risk of medication error?
70. Which of these is a method of accounting for inventory that records the sale or purchase of inventory immediately through the use of computerized point-of-sale systems and enterprise asset management software?
71. Medications that must be kept in a “dry place” must not be exposed to humidity levels exceeding what value (at room temperature)?
72. To guarantee safe and effective storage, how frequently should refrigerator or freezer temperatures be monitored?
73. When should DEA Form 41 be completed?
74. The total sales generated by a business in a specific period is the definition of which of the following?
75. Hazardous materials kept within the pharmacy must keep which of the following documents?
76. Which of the following USP chapters sets standards for non-sterile compounded formulations as well as providing guidance on how to manufacture compounded products?
77. Which legislation was responsible for banning the reimportation of a drug into the US by anyone except the manufacturer?
78. Enacted in 2005, the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act regulates the sale of OTC products that contain any of the following drugs except which?
79. According to law, all pharmacies must contain a copy of which of the following books?
80. Upon being signed by the prescriber, a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be filled within what period?
81. When compounding hazardous drugs, which of these kinds of syringe should be used?
82. A pharmacy has received notice of a drug recall. Which of the following actions should the pharmacy take?
83. Which of the following pieces of legislation requires that pharmacists perform a drug utilization review (DUR)?
84. Which piece of legislation introduced material safety data sheets (MSDS)?
85. Which of the following systems does the FDA describe as its, “Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program”?
86. Which of the following is a centralized drug distribution system that automates the storage, dispensing, return, restocking and crediting of unit-dose, bar-coded inpatient medications?
87. Which of the following is a collection of instructions, procedures, documentation that performs different tasks on a computer system?
88. Under Medicare Part C, private insurance companies can offer which of these other Part benefits?
89. CHAMPVA is a government program that is involved in providing healthcare to which of these?
90. What is the coverage under Medicare Plan A?
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